Uttering an ambiguous word which could imply talaaq
Q: I am actually taking a fiqh course on marriage and divorce but I still don't understand the concepts and I would like to get a second opinion on a question where there is a difference of opinion. If a person uses metaphors of divorce statements with the intention of "wanting to divorce" in the future tense but not to issue a divorce on the spot, are these statements considered in hanafi madhab? My understanding is that they will not count because divorce was not issued on the spot but I read somewhere that it does. Can I please get a second opinion?