Talaaq

Repeating talaaq to pronounce the words clearly

Q: A person was going to give his wife a divorce and the imam had prepared a divorce certificate from which he was supposed to read "I give my wife a talaq ba'in". However when he read it, he misprounced "ba'in" and instead said "I give my wife a talaq bayyin". Therefore the imam asked him to repeat the statement with proper pronunciation whereupon he properly said "I give my wife a talaq ba'in". Did one or two divorces take place?

Talaaq-e-baain and irrevocable talaaq

Q: Me and my husband has had many arguments for the past 2 years. And everytime he keeps saying "Tum meri taraf se farigh ho" - "Tum meri taraf se poori farigh ho" and at the same time he also keep saying "I dont want anything to do with you. Leave this house and do what ever you want to do and go where ever you want to." Sometimes he says sorry and sometimes we dont talk for weeks.

1. Does that mean that he divorced me completely? Am I still in his Nikah or not?

We had arguments again today where he said "Tum meri taraf se farigh ho" and I said if you dont want to keep me then tell me clearly that you are divorcing me. But then he tells me to write down myself that I want a divorce from him. Even though its him who keeps saying it. I never wrote it down on a paper. I dont want to get divorced.

2. What does Talaaq e bain mean? Im a bit confused about what it is.

3. And what is "Revocable Talaaq"? And "Irrevocable Talaaq"? And what is the difference between them?

Halaalah

Q: Nowadays, there are many arguments about three talaaqs and halaalah. The problem is that most people do not have the correct understanding about three talaaqs and halaalah. Can you please enlighten us in this regard?

Husband saying words of talaaq without directing it to the wife

Q: I have been married for two years and have a baby on the way. For some reason I am remembering that one night, two weeks after getting newly married my husband and I went out for a romantic dinner. We were having a sweet and loving conversation that went like this:

Husband: I love you so much please don't ever leave my side

Wife: I love you so very much too. You are my world. I could never leave you, it would be too hard for me to do that. If anything, you could easily leave just by saying three words.

Husband: oh yeah talak chahiye talak chahiye talak chahiye. Wait no, talak dehta hoon talak dehta hoon talak dehta hoon.

Wife: yes those are the words. why did you say those words out loud?

Husband: I thought you were asking me if I knew the words so I just mentioned them.

Wife: did you say it to me as a funny joke?

Husband: no I was only mentioning the words because I thought you were asking me if I knew the three words.

We left the conversation at that. We believe that everything was okay. We even submitted this to an Islamic website and also spoke to an imam of our masjid. They both said that if he did not direct those words towards me in seriousness or in a joking divorce and only said those words as to mention the words by which divorce happens then the nikkah is fine and unharmed. He was only speaking in hypothetical terms by way of example.

 Please let us know what you think as well of the situation?

Consummating the marriage for halaalah to be valid

Q: Please can you urgently help me with my problem.

I made nikaah as a second wife. We had constant arguments about him being unfair regarding promises on time spent with me. A month later we had a meeting with my father which resulted in a heated argument between my father and my husband, my father left. My husband was so angry, he uttered 3 consecutive talaaqs (uttered the word 3 times). I sat for iddat (it was during my menses). After a month of observing iddat my husband contacted me, and being past the anger, we had an intimate telephone conversation with each other and promised he would change. He said that he had spoken to a learned person and he had proof that only 1 talaaq had fallen:

• If talaaq was given in anger and without pre-meditation and because we had an intimate conversation whilst I was observing my iddat, then all 3 talaaq did not fall.

• He also mentioned that he had sinned because he had given me talaaq during my menses.

I was still not sure that my talaaq was given and continued my iddat. When I completed my iddat and he came to me and showed me the ayats whereby I could remarry somebody else and then that person could divorce me and I did not have to consummate that nikaah, so that he (my husband) could remarry me. All I needed to do was to return the mahr to this person and then he would be divorced from me. This all happened in the same day with the 3 of us being present. I have the 2nd marriage certificate, with my first husband as my witness. Thereafter my husband and I remarried for a 2nd time on.

We rented a place and my husband lived with me from time to time. He decided that I should go live back with my parents. I had a baby in that time. One day we got into an argument and he sent me ansms with talaaq word. I took this to an alimah who confirmed that talaaq had fallen. I observed iddat again. He came back to me after the iddat and said that the talaaq wasn’t valid as he did not say the actual talaaq word. We continued living as husband and wife. The reason why I believed and trusted my husband every time is because he is very Islamically inclined and a hafiz.

What is worrying me is based on the manner in which my husband presented my talaaq (3 at once) and the process we followed in terms of the 2nd nikaah, I need to know where I stand. It’s been worrying me for some time now and when he comes home I am not at ease as I feel I am committing zinna and I just want him to stay away from me. Please help me I can’t live with this guilt I don’t know what is the right thing in Allah's eyes. Am I still married or is the (3) talaaq valid?

Saying talaaq by the slip of the tongue without the intention of talaaq

Q:

1. My wife and I had an argument. I went to the bathroom to do wudu. In my mind I was thinking of her abusive words and imagining we are sitting with a family regarding our fighting in future. And she is using same abusive words. In answer to that in my mind I was saying "Mei tumhe". That was just in my mind. Then in this absent minded state, right after I uttered "Talaq deta hun". I held my tongue realizing what just happened with slip of tongue. I never even had intention of pronouncing this word. I can swear by anything that I did not even have intention of pronouncing it. But it happened with absent minded slip of tongue while thinking/imagining about it in future. Please let me know if one talaq counted.

2. Similar question but in my case there was no anger and no fight. I was alone and completely fine. My wife was not present. It just slipped out because I was thinking about the subject of divorce and I did not even think about my wife. Suddenly this thought came of her and I said the words "aap ko talaaq ho".. if I didnt have the intention to say these words or to divorce my wife what is the ruling?

3. Also, once in anger she wrote in an sms "bye" to which I in an instant replied "bye bye bye" but had no intention of divorce. Does that also count as divorce? 

Using kinaya words of talaaq without the intention of talaaq

Q: My marriage is in 10th year. During the first two three years of my marriage, when me and my wife have a heated arguement, in the rage of anger, I asked her to go to her father's house, so that I can get some space to cool my anger. I used different kind of words as "I don't want to see your face", "Go away", "I will not show my face again" and many more words that I don't remember. I don't know how much time this happened, but it happened at least 10 times or more.

Now I came to know about Talaq with kinaya words, I am worried that if my marriage is valid or not. Your answer says that if those words are used in your area. I want to tell you that in my area, only the word "talaq" is used to give talaq.

Also I want to state that my intention was to find some lonely space when I uttered these words. But I doubt that in rage of anger, it is quite possible that I have feelings to get rid of my wife forever.

So, my question is that if a husband does not remembers that if has pronounced kinaya words, will be benefit of doubt will be given to the husband or not? Or, for the sake of "ahtiyat" and "taqwa", should I separate from my wife as I am fearing that if "zina" is taking place between us.