Talaaq

Q: I am a divorced woman with two minor children. I had been through a difficult marriage wherein I was physically, verbally and mentally abused. Presently my children are with me. My ex-husband and his parents are demanding that I send my children to spend the day with them or allow them to take them for a drive or shopping etc. Due to my history I`m not happy with this. They claim that I am depriving them of their Islamic rights. Can Mufti saheb please advise us with the shar`i ruling in this matter?

Q: I wish to ask regarding the divorce. One of my friends divorced 3 years back and hooked up with another woman. His first wife was not a good woman. While she was with my friend she was keeping an affair with another guy. My friend got to know this and he divorced her and her parents gave back all the gold and mahr money as well but he is not aware. He would like to know should he return the mahr money or not?

Q:

1. Is talaaq given during pregnancy valid. 

2. Can nikah be performed to a pregnant woman, i.e. If she fell pregnant before marriage.

Q: If your wife is found in a secluded environment with other men. Is the nikah still valid even though she insists it was innocent?

Q: I would like to find out what is the procedure if a husband gave his wife one talaaq 12 years ago and after the iddat they got back together with a new nikaah and now another talaaq has been given as the iddat has ended and the husband and wife want to get back together again is it possible? Or after the iddat period of the second talaaq does the third one fall?

Q: Me and my wife are not talking for two months. Since our seperation I have made no oath not to return to her or talk to her she is the one who
does not want to talk or reconcile. How does this affect our nikah am I still her husband?

Q: Two days ago I went to a lawyer and told him the details of dispute between me and my wife. After listening, he advised me to make a divorce deed. I agreed and thought that this divorce deed will not be in effective unless I pronounced it verbally or orally in front of my wife. After signing the divorce deed, the lawyer told me to verbally / orally say talak to my wife as a proof but I did not said any thing except I said "just leave it, it is OK". Then he told me to arrange two witness to mentioned in the divorce deed. I went to my two friends and asked them to sign but even here in front of my witnesses I did not said I talak my wife. I got back to my lawyer with the signed document and after examining he said to me that now your wife is haram on you. I was shocked how it could be possible when I have not said talak in front of my wife or anyone else. I was puzzled and the lawyer told me to send the divorce deed to your wife's house. I posted the divorce deed but I did not want to send this divorce deed to my wife. I had thought and my intentions were to just warned my wife by sending the divorce deed and not really divorce her. No doubt I was angry with her
attitude but my intentions were not to take the matters so far. I thought this way she will get back to me and I will tear the divorce deed later. Now please tell me is talak/divorce has been implemented according to law and sharia? Is my wife haram on me?

Q: My cousin brother gave talaak to his wife while in pregnancy. Is this valid because someone told me that while in pregnancy the talaaq is invalid. Please let me know because my cousin brother has given talaaq angrily? Is there any chance or is the talaaq valid?

Q: In an argument with my wife she said she wants a divorce. Later that day I sent these text messages. If you want to leave me speak to your dad, you know what to do. If you want to leave me, go and get  khula, go to the shariah council. I had no intention of divorce. In a later message I also said I have no intention of leaving you. Has divorce taken place.

Q: If a woman is divorced three times, I heard she can do halala with a third person and then return to her first husband (after completing the iddah). I know that it is not permissible to make halala a condition in the wedding contract, but it is permissible for her to informally agree with the man (the mohallil) to make halala (by speaking to him), without formally specifying it as a condition in the contract and without announcing it publically? The intention of both parties would be to make halalah so that the lady is able to resume her life with her former husband and reunite her with her family.