Talaaq

Q: Is this valid if a husband writes on paper and hands it to his wife "I give talaak to... wife’s name" then he says to hiss dad that I gave her talaak?

Q: What is the ruling regarding giving authority of talaaq to a third person and how does one go about doing this? If the third person doesn't verbally accept the authority of the talaaq, will he still be able to issue it?

Q: Before divorce my husband said that you are not wife in future during some problems then he divorced me. He said that I am giving you 1 divorce, I am giving you 2nd divorce! After this I came back my parents home and in iddat period. After 4 months my husband text me talaq talaq talaq, I give you 3 talaq. So my question is, can a husband divorce his wife after iddat?

Q: If a woman dreams that her and her husband are far away from each other and she is angry and upset with her husband but isn't sure if they were divorced in the dream.

1. Would a dream like this mean divorce in real life?

2. Would dreaming of divorce mean divorce in real life

3. Would dreaming of this or of divorce mean that the nikah has broken or become or will be invalid?

Q: If two talaaks were given, can the talaak be revoked and a fresh nikah be performed to allow the couple to continue their marriage?

Q: Are the word s(leave) or (chor dena in urdu) kinaya words or sareeh words? I live in USA and we use these words in so many different meanings in both english and urdu.

For example, I have dropped off my brother at airport (in urdu, mein ne apne bhai ko airport per chor dia hai), he has quit smoking (Us ne cigrette peena chor dia hai), He has left the job (Us ne job chor di hai), I am leaving for work (Mein kaam per ja raha hoon), I have left my brother to my uncle's house for couple of hours, etc.

We use these words in general in our routine life. I have watched few videos on youtube, some of them say it is sareeh depending upon their urf like in Pakistan and some say it is kinaya. Some say that if a word has more than one meaning then the intention is required. We don't know what is the urf here in USA because here the Muslim community is from so many different Muslim countries around the world and they speak different languages. Can a person use these words for his wife if he has no intention of divorce. Please guide me about it. I asked this question from my family elders who are living here in USA for years, they say these kind of words require intention. It becomes so difficult sometimes to talk with my wife because of the choice of these words. Please guide me about it.

Q: 15 years ago I married my first wife, who was my first cousin. In my Nikah agreement there was talaq-e-tafweez that I was not told about. I accepted and signed in front of two Muslim witnesses. Later when I read my Nikah certificate and saw that my wife was given the right to divorce me and I was not told about it during the time of Nikah, I was not happy. If I had known, I would not have agreed for her to have the right to divorce me. So I explained to her, and she signed another document in front of two Muslim witnesses (I believe one witness was same as during the Nikah). The document stated that she gives up her right to divorce me, and she and the two witnesses signed also.

Fives years later, we had some disagreements and she asked for divorce and I love her very much so I refused to divorce her. Therefore, she went to the court and got divorced from the court and mailed me the divorce papers. She said that she asked an imam and he said it was okay for her to divorce me. Now both her, and I are married to different people. I still miss her and wonder if our marriage is still valid. I never divorced her with my words, actions, or in writing. Not even as a joke.

My question is, are we still married since I never divorced her because she gave up her right to divorce me? And is her Nikah with the other guy valid or no? Since I was not told about talaq-e-tafweez during my Nikah, did she have the right to divorce me before she gave it up? If she had the right to divorce me, did she give up that right by signing a new document in front of two Muslim witnesses that said she’s giving up her right to divorce me?

Q: My husband keeps on saying and messaging many people and me also that he wants to give me talaq. He is doing this continueously for the last 6 months but didn't say it to me directly. Does it affect our nikaah?

Q: I said to my wife. "Agar bazar se ik ganty ke andar wapus na ai to sub kuch khatam hojai ga" with the intention in my head to scare her that the rishta will end so come fast and not at all with the niyat of talaq. Now after 3 months I did researched and found out that this is called kinaya and it may be a divorce?