Q: I have recently seen some of the YouTube videos of Sheikh Imran Hosein from Trinidad. However, I have some doubts and reservations regarding some of the things which he has mentioned in his lectures on YouTube. 

I have also read some of his Islamic books and articles, and find that he is promoting certain beliefs which are in contrast to the beliefs that we have learnt in madrasah. Among the beliefs which he subscribes to and promotes are the following two beliefs: 

1. He claims that Nabi Isa (‘alaihis salaam) had been crucified, and thereafter, Allah Ta’ala gave him life. 

2. He claims that the manner in which a certain verse is recited today is incorrect and is not part of the actual Qur’aan that was revealed by Allah Ta’ala upon Rasulullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam). Rather, the people who came after Rasulullah (sallallahu ‘alaihi wasallam) and the Sahaabah (radhiyallahu ‘anhum) made a change to that word of the Qur’aan Majeed. He says that the verse “وَاِنّه لَعِلْمٌ لِّلسَّاعة” can only be read as وَاِنّه لَعَلَمٌ لِّلسَّاعة and it is incorrect to read it as وَاِنّه لَعِلْمٌ لِّلسَّاعة . 

Can Mufti Saheb please explain whether this person’s beliefs are acceptable or whether they go against the correct beliefs of Islam and will render one out of the fold of Islam for subscribing to them? 

I have also heard that Sheikh Imran Hosein is coming to South Africa soon. Will it be permissible for people to attend his lectures? 

Q: Alhamdullah, I am pregnant. So can I offer nafal and sunnah Salah on the chair and perform the fardh Salah by standing.

Q: I have a death sentence and don’t want to die. In Islam is it mandatory to be subjected to death no matter how severe?

Q: Can men wear fitness rings which is made of material Titanium?

Q: I am married to my husband on 15 July 2009. After four years he say divorce to me twice in one setting then my family said we make this home again and you will ruju with him. 

I am OK and and we start life again. Last year he again divorce me three times in one setting. My family contacted mufti and told him the whole situation. He say there is a gap in wordings and this is the last chance to continue with him and ruju. 

Now this year on 5 Jan, he again say divorce three time in one setting. Now my heart say something is against the laws of Allah. Please give me your option not live with him. He again say I am not mean it.

Q: I am a working woman and married. Both me and my husband are working in respectable jobs. I handle my own personal expenses from day one of marriage and have never asked for pocket money from my husband. 

I have two children aged 1 year and 1 month. My husband refuses to help in the my children's financial needs. Both of them are on formula milk and their combined expenditure is around 80000 which I am solely bearing along with my own expenses. 

My husband's income is more than me. He refuses to contribute even half. Alhamdulillah, I am managing but my question is what are the rights of such a husband/father over his wife and children if he refuses to contribute even 50 percent financially if he has more than enough money. What are the faraiz and instructions for the mother/wife in such a case who despite being married is living like a single mother?

Q: If a woman is fighting on the side of the enemy in a battle against the Muslims, can a Muslim soldier kill that woman in that scenario?

Q: What can a woman recite during her haidh?

Q: When I get angry I used to say divorce me to my husband. Then to explain he said "I divorce, I divorce, I divorce. If I say these 3 words it would dissolve our marriage so don't say that again and again especially over the phone when you can't predict the other person's mental state and this can destroy our marriage, so don't ask for it again'. 

So my question is, does divorce take place by saying this because he was just explaining, without any pause, that I shouldn't ask for it again and again.

Q: A person called someone a kaafir but this person had no idea that the person he’s talking about is actually a Muslim due to the fact that the person he spoke about has a kaafir name and made no clear indication that he was a Muslim. 

In this case, does it make the person that was speaking about the other person a kaafir?