Talaaq

Q:

1. My wife and I had an argument. I went to the bathroom to do wudu. In my mind I was thinking of her abusive words and imagining we are sitting with a family regarding our fighting in future. And she is using same abusive words. In answer to that in my mind I was saying "Mei tumhe". That was just in my mind. Then in this absent minded state, right after I uttered "Talaq deta hun". I held my tongue realizing what just happened with slip of tongue. I never even had intention of pronouncing this word. I can swear by anything that I did not even have intention of pronouncing it. But it happened with absent minded slip of tongue while thinking/imagining about it in future. Please let me know if one talaq counted.

2. Similar question but in my case there was no anger and no fight. I was alone and completely fine. My wife was not present. It just slipped out because I was thinking about the subject of divorce and I did not even think about my wife. Suddenly this thought came of her and I said the words "aap ko talaaq ho".. if I didnt have the intention to say these words or to divorce my wife what is the ruling?

3. Also, once in anger she wrote in an sms "bye" to which I in an instant replied "bye bye bye" but had no intention of divorce. Does that also count as divorce? 

Q: In a baain talaq, after the talaq the nikah is immediately over. If the husband gives the wife another talaq in this iddat, does it go through?

Q: My marriage is in 10th year. During the first two three years of my marriage, when me and my wife have a heated arguement, in the rage of anger, I asked her to go to her father's house, so that I can get some space to cool my anger. I used different kind of words as "I don't want to see your face", "Go away", "I will not show my face again" and many more words that I don't remember. I don't know how much time this happened, but it happened at least 10 times or more.

Now I came to know about Talaq with kinaya words, I am worried that if my marriage is valid or not. Your answer says that if those words are used in your area. I want to tell you that in my area, only the word "talaq" is used to give talaq.

Also I want to state that my intention was to find some lonely space when I uttered these words. But I doubt that in rage of anger, it is quite possible that I have feelings to get rid of my wife forever.

So, my question is that if a husband does not remembers that if has pronounced kinaya words, will be benefit of doubt will be given to the husband or not? Or, for the sake of "ahtiyat" and "taqwa", should I separate from my wife as I am fearing that if "zina" is taking place between us.

Q: Is this valid if a husband writes on paper and hands it to his wife "I give talaak to... wife’s name" then he says to hiss dad that I gave her talaak?

Q: What is the ruling regarding giving authority of talaaq to a third person and how does one go about doing this? If the third person doesn't verbally accept the authority of the talaaq, will he still be able to issue it?

Q: Before divorce my husband said that you are not wife in future during some problems then he divorced me. He said that I am giving you 1 divorce, I am giving you 2nd divorce! After this I came back my parents home and in iddat period. After 4 months my husband text me talaq talaq talaq, I give you 3 talaq. So my question is, can a husband divorce his wife after iddat?

Q: If a woman dreams that her and her husband are far away from each other and she is angry and upset with her husband but isn't sure if they were divorced in the dream.

1. Would a dream like this mean divorce in real life?

2. Would dreaming of divorce mean divorce in real life

3. Would dreaming of this or of divorce mean that the nikah has broken or become or will be invalid?

Q: If two talaaks were given, can the talaak be revoked and a fresh nikah be performed to allow the couple to continue their marriage?

Q: Are the word s(leave) or (chor dena in urdu) kinaya words or sareeh words? I live in USA and we use these words in so many different meanings in both english and urdu.

For example, I have dropped off my brother at airport (in urdu, mein ne apne bhai ko airport per chor dia hai), he has quit smoking (Us ne cigrette peena chor dia hai), He has left the job (Us ne job chor di hai), I am leaving for work (Mein kaam per ja raha hoon), I have left my brother to my uncle's house for couple of hours, etc.

We use these words in general in our routine life. I have watched few videos on youtube, some of them say it is sareeh depending upon their urf like in Pakistan and some say it is kinaya. Some say that if a word has more than one meaning then the intention is required. We don't know what is the urf here in USA because here the Muslim community is from so many different Muslim countries around the world and they speak different languages. Can a person use these words for his wife if he has no intention of divorce. Please guide me about it. I asked this question from my family elders who are living here in USA for years, they say these kind of words require intention. It becomes so difficult sometimes to talk with my wife because of the choice of these words. Please guide me about it.