Q: I have been separated for 10 months. My wife and I have had no contact during this time. She came to my house one night and we were intimate. The next day I had regretted and wanted to proceed with talaaq. I was advised that I cannot proceed with talaaq for 30 days because of the intimacy we had. My wife had her womb removed and cannot fall pregnant. Can I still request talaaq before the 30 day waiting period?
Q: What is the concept of talaq and halalah in Islam? I heard that there is no concept of halalah in Islam, is this true?
Q: My husband is interested in other women. He stares at other women and he has told me that he cannot stop his eyes by staring at other women. He talks to every renter i.e. women. He makes other women sit on his bike by telling silly reasons and he even took pictures of our servant on his mobile. He texts awkward messeges to facebook girlfreinds. I made many duas in order to take him on the right path but his behaviour is not changing. Now I'm fed up with him and I cannot bear him anymore. My in law's also never take care about me. I wanted to take divorce, is it permissible?
Q: A wife has a doubt that her husband is cheating on her, she is asking her husband to take vow. Her husband is saying that if u will ask me to take vow I'll divorce you. My question is that in such a situation what should wife must do?
Q: I understand that there has to be a niyyah when one says a phrase of kinaya talaaq. I wondered that if one is arguing, and one gets a feeling like wanting to divorce or a feeling like "come on do it now (leave her) and then says a kinaya statement like "go to your father", all happening in seconds, is that a clear intention that is necessarry? But if the person asks himself a few moments later did you want to definetly divorce her now by that, the answer is no. What do i do now as i dont know whether it was an intention that counted or not?
Q: I gave my husband a khula but i'm going through my iddah but we want to reconcile. If he gave me two talaq already could we remarry?
Q: If a wife calls her husband ‘brother’ is this zihar? Can zihar be given by wife?
Q: If Arif writes "You Go" on a sms on his phone with this in mind that he is thinking that he is saying this to his wife Rubab, but on the sms there is no mention of Rubab's name neither her number is displayed in the 'To' Field, its all in the mind. Does the intention count then or is it just nothing. Bearing in mind, Arif suffers from constant wasawas in every aspect of life, marriage, salah, wudhu, ghusl.
Q: I wrote on mt mobile 3 time divorce and showed it to my mother and told her that if you don't get me married in 6 months to my engaged wife, I will send this message to my wife. I only wanted to scare my mother. Thereafter I deleted it. Did a divorce take place before my nikaah can even happen?
Q: I am very tensed about a situation. I was having an argument with my wife and in anger I wanted to call her "Mother F______", but my tongue got stuck and instead I uttered the word "Mother" from my mouth. Have I committed "Zihar" though my intentions were not to call my wife "Mother". Should I now need to atone by freeing a slave, or observe fast, or serve food to needy people? My intentions were not to call my wife this.