Q: I have a question related to an old rented property system called pagdi system. My friend had a shop in 2002 and he wanted to give it for rent. But unfortunately the old pagdi rented system was imposed at that time and most of the properties were rented on this system. So he also accepted the pagdi rented system and gave it for pagdi rent based...

The rules in this system are mentioned below:

1) The total price of the shop is 200 000

2) The owner gets half of the amount 100 000 at the start of the pagdi rented system from the tenant

3) The rent was fixed at Rs 700 per month and after every 11 months 10% has to be increased. For e.g. If the rent was Rs 700 in 1st Jan 2002, then on 12th Dec 2002 the amount of rent has to be increased by 10% (700×10÷100=70)

4) So After 11 months, the amount is Rs 770 which again has to be increased by 10% after 11 months

5) The whole system is based on that and continues.

6) The amount of the shop now in 2017 is approx. 20 000 000

My question is that the Ulama gave the fatwa that pagdi system is haraam in Islam. All the pagdi system has to be ended and only the pure rented income is halaal. So after this, my question is that my Friend is the owner of the shop but the tenant left the shop in 2012 due to some personal reasons and also informed my friend who is the owner of the shop that he left the shop and he will come back soon but he did not come back after one year. He took out all of his furniture, assets and everything from the shop and also can't give any rent From 2012 to 2017  My Freinds Shop Was Closed And he did not get any Benefit from it He File the Case with the Court About all this situation And After Few Years The Court Ordered him the Case In his favour As An Ex Partee (Because the tenant Not Presented in Any Session of the Court) And My Freind Declared  as a Legal owner of the Shop  By The Court Of Law... It Is Halal To get The Shop In this way? Because We live in An Islamic Ideology State Pakistan And All The Rules & Regulation Of the Court Law is based on the Principles of Islam...

Q Is My Friend Feel Free In All this Way that it is Halal?

Q Is he be able to do his business in this shop According to Islam?

Q: When one misses a rakaat with Jamaat, as one stands up, do you start with Thana or Sura Faatiha.

Q: Is it permissible to have inter-course with ones wife when there's a full moon.

Q: I was wondering what the best ways to prevent evil eye/naaar are? And what are we to do if we Muslims get evil eye/nazar? 

Q: When does Qaza namaz begin for all prayers?

Q: Suppose one is reciting Quran sharif after Asar or Fajar Salat and a Ayat comes when it is mandatory to offer a Sajda. Then is it allowed to offer a Sajada because as per my limited knowledge a Sajda is forbiddend after Fajar salat till tulu aftab and after Asar salat till Magrib.

Q: Is it permissible to recite memorized part of Quran sharif without touching it when the ghusl has become farz or mandatory?

Q: Is it permissible to recite Quran sharif at the time of zawal?

Q: I am trading in Indian share market. When I purchase a share it comes into my demat account (SHARE HOLDING ACCOUNT) after 3 days. Whereas when I sell the share it goes off from my demat account after 1 day. I know that it is forbidden to sell which is not in your possession. I have few questions in my mind.

1) As per the Indian stock market system I can purchase and sell at any time. But as per many Muslim scholars we should sell only when it comes into our possession. So I sell the shares after 3 days only though if I suffer losses. If I see losses then can I sell the shares before 3 days?

2) When the share are in my possession after 3 days then sometimes I want to sell it first and the buy it later on the same day. Is it a short sell? I want to clarify the mechanism for this scenario. I have 20 shares of xyz company in my account. I have sold it at higher amount and bought it at lesser amount on the same day. That means it should be deducted from my demat account and then again should be added to my account. As explained in point 1 it should take 3+1 day to complete the cycle. But this does not happen technically. Technically the shares remain my demat account. My question is- Is it permissible to do so? Or If I want to rebuy the shares then should I but it next day so that it goes from my demat account and then again comes into my account?

Q: I have an important concern in which I need a clarification from you please. I will explain you the scenario first for your understanding. Two Nikaahs. The first one is mine, the Nikkah is completely based on Sunnah which is insha Allah will be very simple and with proper mahar, this nikkah commences on the first day night of the second nikkah which is going to happen on the second day noon. The second day nikkah is for my sister. This nikaah is also with proper mahar and no dowry, but this Nikaah is done based on the traditions that take place in our place with Kuthbas and fatiha by the imaams and they recite Alli kuth bainama in the kuthba which here local scholars confirming this as bida'h. So on this second day my sisters husband is arranging a waleema in which he does not collect single penny from his wife's family. My question is can I Share my waleema with him? I mean, I need to give waleema right? Can me and my sister's husband share financially and give waleema to our family and relatives. Is this bida'h? Please I need your valuable input based on Shariah Sheik.