Q: I am from Saudia Arabia and my wife is from Pakistan. Five months ago I decided to divorce her and I did not make any contact with her for 122 days. I heard if any husband did not make any contact for 4 month 10 days (130 days) while thinking he will divorce, Talaaq takes place. So is my nikaah broken?
Q: My question to you is my husband has made a fake divorced paper for UK visa residency purpose. This paper is signed by him and is registered in our country. But this paper has never been given to me but my husband has informed me about this stupid act of his. On asking my husband says plainly his intention is never to give me talaq and this document is to be used only for visa purposes. I want to know am I divorced this way? If I am divorced this way do we have to do nikaah again? Please guide me properly.
Q: If a husband writes a status on Facebook with : I divorce "wife's name" and shares it two or three times. Are they divorced?
Q: One month ago I moved out of the marital house and moved back to parents, before I left I told my husband that I am going to speak to my parents and inform them that the marriage is over and I suggest he does the same, we were living with his parents, for years we were living an unhappy life, constantly arguing, him verbally and emotionally abusing me and not nafakaing me.
1. Am I living an unislamic life by living with my parents during the process of me applying for a faskh?
2. Do I have valid grounds for ending the marriage due to him not nafakaing me and constantly verbally abusing me?
3. Is there an idaa period if I apply for faskh and when does my idea period start?
Q: If a man is obliged to divorce his wife as he is threatened and he says the words in which divorce occurs but he didn't want to nor did he intend divorce he was just compelled to do so as he feared his life and his wife's as he was forced and had no choice because of the threat, is divorce considered and takes place here?
Q: Me and my husband are currently in the middle of a divorce. It is not something I want but their are family complications on his side which means sadly he is taking this route. The way he is giving me a divorce is though written paper which is signed by two witnesses. He will only issue this once to me. My question is I always thought that a divorce needs to be issued three times over a three months period is the way he is divorcing me valid? Also once I receive the paper of divorce my iddah period will begin after this period is over does the rule apply that we can not reconcile and are unable to marry each other again unless I have a another marriage which is genuine and genuinely does not work out (I would not do anything like this on purpose as I know it is haram). Or could we re marry because the divorce has only been issued once?
Q: I want to ask that if a girl has got the 'right to divorce' in nikah nama, how can she divorce her husband if she needs to? Is it right in Islam for a woman to have this right? and if so, can she divorce her husband just by saying divorce three times (as a man can do) or there is some other strategy for a girl who has got this right (of divorce) by her husband?
Q: I would like to enquire about an argument that occurred between my spouse and myself in 2003. During that time I uttered the word Tala Tala Tila. Since then my wife and I lived together as normal lives until Jan 2013. Recently my wife had a small problem and now stated about that incident whereby I had said those words. I confronted her parents in 2003 about the matter and explained the situation that it was not intentional. My wife is insisting that she heard the words back then. Also to note that we got a baby girl in 2007 who is currently 7 years of age. This has since become a problem and we require clarity as to if the marriage is over? I await your feedback.
Q: I wanted to know if a man has given his wife one Talaq and the iddat period is long over one year. Can the man marry her again if both agree or does she have to first remarry someone else before he can get married to her again in the Shafi Mathab.
Q: I have a very important question. If a guy says to his wife طلقتك Then after 5 mins says it again then he says that you have become haram upon me and I have become haram upon you, this phrase is talaaq baa'in which means they just need new nikah. But due to saying طلقتك twice does divorce take place?