Talaaq

Q: In the past I had some disputes with my wife. Alhamdulillah things are better now. However, sometimes I have waswasa if divorce may be occurred.

I have several questions but biggest one I will ask now others maybe later. One such instance is as follows that I would like to ask. We had been separated for several months. There was a meeting with some elders about our marriage and it was decided to give us 1 month more to sort things out to get back together. At the end of this meeting, I said something to one of the elders like "okay so we have 1 month to work things out, if things work out she will be back within 1 month and if not then..." and I basically stopped and there was non-verbal expressions. I did not mention "divorce" in that sentence and neither do I believe that was my intention. However, I did sort of in a way imply divorce and afterwards I mentioned to others as well that "we have a 1 month time limit to work things out".

We got back together but a couple of weeks past 1 month. After 1 month passed, I started getting waswasa that maybe I had stated a conditional divorce which I did not realize earlier.

I do believe although I was implying that things will not work out if it goes past one month, I did not intend it to be a conditional divorce upon one month but rather that a decision of divorce would have to be made (so basically I was saying something like so we have 1 month to make a decision).

I don't believe my understanding was that divorce would take place automatically after 1 month, but rather that a decision would have to be made. After 1 month but before we got back together, as part of a conversation I also said something to my wife like "We had 1 month time limit, if things worked out you would be back if not we would be ending it" or something similar like "if not things would be over".

I just want to know if this was conditional divorce. Again I did not use the word of divorce and I don't believe it was my intention.

Q: I got divorced two year ago, then one year ago I married again with some other person but got divorced again. So I want to ask may I again marry with my first husband? Is it halaal?

Q: My wife wants khula. She is 7 months pregnant and she doesn't want to continue with this marriage. If I give khula then what will be the responsibility on me as the khula is on her request.

Q: Me and my wife often have verbal fights. One day after a verbal fight she asked me to leave her and said, "Mujhay chor kyun nahi daytay" In extreme anger I replied ,"Jao tumhain chor dia" and repeated thrice but I didnt intend divorce nor I know that these words may intend for divorce so we ignored and spent normal married relation. After months of this incident, one day my wife started having doubts that perhaps the words I used are intended for divorce. Now we both are so worried and dont know whether we are divorced or not. Please guide us.

Q: If a man divorces his wife for the frst time but then they reunite and every thing sorted out. Again after a period of time they again got divorced and again they remarry and everything sorted out but the third time if a man asked his wife that he is going abroad and not to go out without his permission otherwise it'll be considered a divorce. So now is it considered a final divorce? I mean if in this situation is it considered 3 divorces at a time because she went out without his permission... and if both are willing to live together for the sake of children is it possible for them to do so without 'halaala'. Kindly can I get your copy of fatwa regarding this as it is a serious domestic issue. 

Q: I am a patient of chronic depression, in other words I am suffering from bi-polar depression and it was diagnosed by psychiatric and I am having extreme mood swings as well. Once in this condition I gave my wife many talaqs. Actually I uttered the word TALAQ many times. Is my talaq valid?

Q: I need to discuss my problem and its solution. I'm married for the last one year. Its the second marriage of my husband but my first. We live in different cities due to training purposes. Last Sundy 2nd of july 2017 we had some fight and while arguing i became furious and starting beating him. I get panic attacks and it happening for the last 2 years when i used strong dose anxiolytics..but it was ok since our marriage until for last 2months when i again started having sme attacks.i beat him so much and said to leave me..v left the dinning table and went to bed room where i cintinued beting him and forcing him to leave me right nw.it wasnt my intention and i wasnt even expecting that he would say anything..but finally he uttered the words"ok ok i give u divorce". Which in original words were"thek h theek h me day daita hun talaaq ,day daita hun talaaq ,day daita hun talaaq". It was all of sudden when v realised wht happened.i left the home at the same moment and no cntct since then..v had sexual realtion on that early morning sunday the sMe day when he said those words..now i asked him yesterday wether he was in his senses and what was thinking t that time.he said i was not in anger and when u were forcing i was thinking to use some word that vill satisfy u at that moment and u calm down.but finally i utered these words without thinking anything. Now sir please help me..i dnt want to be seperated ..as i want to live with him.some sayes that divorce at the time of impurity is not valid .and some says that three at once is the single one ..and even some says that ur intention matters at that moment.please help me in this situation sir..mm really worried

Q: My husband told my mum last year that he divorces me twice in one sitting. He later said he doesn't remember this and following saying it he smashed his phone. He said it was as if he was not present when saying it, he didnt realise. Is this counted as talaq or ighlaq? I can only take his word for it. Since then, he has said many times that 'main khatam karna chahta hun aj' meaning I want to end it today. But when asked he says he has no intention of divorce and it was only in anger. I cannot live my life as I don't know if I am married anymore.

Q: My wife and I were having a conversation. We were talking about something regarding the sleeping patterns of our child. She wanted to try a different technique for our child who wakes up often at night to feed. I made the statement "Why don't you go to your parents house and try it". Prior to making this statement my intention was she go to her parents house for holiday. However I was aware that certain statements of this nature may constitute talaq. While I was making the statement, the thought and feeling came in my mind that my intention is talaq. I suffer from waswasa with certain things like whudu and salaah.

Does this constitute talaq?

Q: My sister and brother in laws abuse me very badly so I told my husband that I won't cook food for them. Then my husband said that if you won't cook food for them then I have also one condition that you have to leave your mother forever and never talk to her otherwise our relationship is over. On this condition I decided to go to my parents home then my husband stopped me by saying that do whatever you want but don't go. Then we started living as husband and wife but again he started forcing me to cook food for them and the argument continued but one night on 6 October 2016, I told my husband that why are you always forcing me to cook food for them as I have told you that I won't cook. Than my husband said that I have also told you that leave your mother otherwise our relationship is over talaak. Since then I am living with my parents. My husband says that come back I have not given you a talaak. Please tell me whether I am divorced or not?