Talaaq

Q: When a woman is divorced, who's responsibility she becomes and what are they responsible off?

Q: My question is my husband gave me a first talaq in 2005. We lived in ... for 8 years after that. He asked me to go back to Pakistan to live with my parents after a conflict. He gave me a second talaq via a text message while he was in ... and I was in .... At the same time he sent me an email with a 'conditional talaq notice' stating that he is giving me 2 talaqs on the condition if I come back to ... from ... and they will become valid and that first talaq of 2005, three talaaqs will happen and I will become na mahram for him. I stayed back in ...,then he sent me an email before 90 days, which was the iddat period for the second talaq he gave me earlier via text message, stating that he wants to make rajoo' with me and wants to take me back in his nikaah. After that the 2 conditional talaaqs are still there. My husband is still in ... and I am in ... Is that conditional talaq going to effect my present nikaah in any way like making it makrooh or do I need to do any thing about it so that it does not effect our nikaah?

Q: I wanted to know where I stand in my situation. Basically, I have given my wife first divorce in January. After that, we had ruju' done and lived fine and happy for 6 months. But again, major issues were brought up and she went back to her mothers home. It has been three months with no contact and in that time, I signed a divorce paper witnessed by a solicitor which clearly states I divorce her. This was not given to her, but am I right to assume, because my intentions are involved, it is classed as the 2nd divorce?

Now, someone is trying to mend the relationship, but it has been over 2 month since this 2nd divorce. I am confused because some one has said, that between the 2nd and 3rd, even if you don't give a divorce, if the period of ruju' is over, it automatically nullifies the marriage. is this true? Or are we still in nikaah?

Q: I got married (only nikkah) 9 years ago (rukhsati and proper marriage function was done after 4 years). Me and my wife had some strong arguments over some thing after nikaah and I got hyper and to scare my wife I gave her 2 talaaqs like this I give you divorce, I give you divorce over a telephonic discussion and after the 2nd time I uttered the word of divorce she disconnected the phone. And that's what I wanted.

1. Before uttering the word divorce I kept quite and prayed to Allah Almighty that " Ya Allah I am not going to give my wife divorce and you are the only witness to this thought that I don't mean it. Actually this word which I am going to speak doesn't mean anything please accept my apology". Then after thinking this I spoke to my wife the word of divorce and by speaking the word I started speaking the word in my mind that I am not giving my wife divorce. After she disconnected the phone I called her back after some time like after an hour and apologised to her in a way "I am sorry please listen carefully I haven't given you divorce because I promised Allah that I am not giving divorce and uttered divorce so there is no divorce. Thats what happened 5 years ago I guess. Now one day I heard and came to know my divorced took place.

2.Tell me weather my divorced happened or not? If it happened then what I have to do now? 

3. If my divorced happened, then I think after 2 talaaqs I could take my wife back. Was the way I mentioned to take back correct or do I have to remarry her again. One important thing I need to mention here although after nikaah we had no sexual relationship but we were together alone in room a lot of time but we opted not to have sex because we had social fear of having a baby before rukhsati. Please advise. 

Q: I am a married woman. I was involved with a married man when I was still staying with my husband. I committed zina with him. Me and my husband are separated for 1 year 8 months now. My husband sent me a signed legal document for divorce in which I also signed and accepted the divorce. Our case was called 4 months back and that was when we were legally divorced in the family court. We are no more in contact with each other. Just yesterday my mum called my husband to give me talaaq, but he didn't say anything about it. He didn't say that he is giving me talaaq. I have also asked him several times to give me talaaq but he doesn't. in this situation can I perform nikah again with whom I want to marry? I have heard that there is no iddat period after committing zina. Please tell me if iddat period is farz on me? and for how long?

Q: A woman whose husband leaves her for 1 year 8 months with no contact and applies for a legal divorce and signs documents for separation and the magistrate dissolves their marriage in the family court. Now its 4 months from the divorce date. Can the woman make nikah again?

Q: My husband gave me a talaaq a few years ago. He sent me to live in Pakistan and gave me a conditional talaaq notice of 2 remaining talaaqs via email that if I come back to UK to him they will become valid. Is there any way I can go back to UK but still the talaaqs will not be valid or if they become valid if I go back to UK without his permission, do I need to do something about it while I stay back in Pakistan? Please help in the light of your knowledge.

Q: I follow the hanafi madhab. I divorced my wife one time and then I went back to her by just uttering the words I take you back as my wife then I divorced her a second time after a few days and then I went back to her by just uttering words I take you back and accept you as my wife. Recently a friend of mine told me that I can't do that. After the second time I must have an imam and witnesses and marry her again the way I first married her. I am worried now. I have already divorced her for the third time now but I am concerned that when I became intimate with her after the second divorce did I fall in sin?

Q: Would these words affect our nikkah in urdu language"zara tehro main tumhain likh ker deta hoon ke talaaq deta hoon" means in English "hold on I give you talaaq in writing" but did'nt write in writing after saying that?

Q: I e-mailed you about the problems between my husband and myself, and you replied and said if my husband used the word of "Leave the house" then he will not be halaal for his wife and this will be talaaq-e-baain. My question is if they both want to ruju again what should they do according to the Islamic point of view please help me.