Talaaq

Q: I want to ask that If a husband says to wife that if you go out alone then I will divorce you and if wife goes out alone does divorce take place?

Q: I am living abroad, when I came here I wrote in the papers that I am married in Pakistan and wrote my wife's name also. But now as I am living abroad, I also got married here as well. The trouble arises when I need to apply for citizenship for this country. The trouble is this I need to tell them that my previous marriage is no longer valid. In fact I don't want to break my first marriage. Can I write to them that I am no longer in the first marriage, or if I mention my first wife's name but wrong fathers name so that even though I am doing a bad thing lying but I want to save my first marriage. This foreign country just has her name in the records, no picture no other details.

Q: If a man gives 1 or 2 talaaqs to his wife and then she gets married to someone else and has divorce or the husband dies and after her iddah she marries the first husband back. Do the Talaqs restart for that person or do the 1 or 2 given still remain ?

Q: I am in need of some advice. My husband and I are having quite a lot misunderstandings and always arguing etc. Last night he sent me a message saying it's over and I must pack up and leave. Does that count as a talaaq and does my iddat start immediatel?. He just messaged me again saying "its a divorce" so I'm confused as to whether I need to sit in iddat ?

Q: My husband and I are having quite a lot of misunderstandings and always arguing etc. Last night he sent me a message saying its over and I must pack up and leave. Does that count as a talaq and does my iddat start immediately? Now he just messaged me again saying "its a divorce" so I'm confused as to whether I need to sit in iddat?

Q: Is the first talaq considered void if rujoo is done afterwards and the gap between the second talaq is 28 year. Someone told me there is a fatwa that if the second divorce is given after 25 years of the first one, then the first divorce is void?

Q: When a man has divorced his wife and they have children so the small children are by the wife. However, he is allowed to visit them. But the problem is that the husband wants the children to spend the weekends by him i.e. that is he wants them to spend the nights as well by him on Friday and Saturday. But the wife says that they may only spend the days a the husbands home, not the nights. Is it correct for the wife to say so? 

Q: When a woman is divorced, who's responsibility she becomes and what are they responsible off?

Q: My question is my husband gave me a first talaq in 2005. We lived in ... for 8 years after that. He asked me to go back to Pakistan to live with my parents after a conflict. He gave me a second talaq via a text message while he was in ... and I was in .... At the same time he sent me an email with a 'conditional talaq notice' stating that he is giving me 2 talaqs on the condition if I come back to ... from ... and they will become valid and that first talaq of 2005, three talaaqs will happen and I will become na mahram for him. I stayed back in ...,then he sent me an email before 90 days, which was the iddat period for the second talaq he gave me earlier via text message, stating that he wants to make rajoo' with me and wants to take me back in his nikaah. After that the 2 conditional talaaqs are still there. My husband is still in ... and I am in ... Is that conditional talaq going to effect my present nikaah in any way like making it makrooh or do I need to do any thing about it so that it does not effect our nikaah?

Q: I wanted to know where I stand in my situation. Basically, I have given my wife first divorce in January. After that, we had ruju' done and lived fine and happy for 6 months. But again, major issues were brought up and she went back to her mothers home. It has been three months with no contact and in that time, I signed a divorce paper witnessed by a solicitor which clearly states I divorce her. This was not given to her, but am I right to assume, because my intentions are involved, it is classed as the 2nd divorce?

Now, someone is trying to mend the relationship, but it has been over 2 month since this 2nd divorce. I am confused because some one has said, that between the 2nd and 3rd, even if you don't give a divorce, if the period of ruju' is over, it automatically nullifies the marriage. is this true? Or are we still in nikaah?