Talaaq

Q: I am an Indian and my wife had filed a dowry case against me without any reason and based on that I had to give her talaq in writing back dated [13.11.2013] that is one month before from the day the they have called me in the police station [16.12.2013]. Otherwise they would have put me in some other cases. Since I am staying in gulf I have send a written letter to her on talaaq and sent the same by post. However I have pronounced talaq in front of her father and and other witnesses after a month [28.12.2013] in the police station over the phone. Now my question is which talaaq is valid the one which I pronounced in front of everyone over telephone or the one which I sent a letter to her house with witness signature but at that time during sending the letter I verbally did not pronounce talaq. Please advice which talaq is valid and how to count 3 months iddah period?

Q: I have been separated from my husband to 12 and a half years no contact no financial support from him.  I have been told that after three months of separation a talaaq is automatically done is this correct?

Q: I suffer from wasaawis, but not on a major level, just mildly. I was arguing with my wife and she kicked me. After this I said go. My intent
was if that is how you are going to treat me then just go. At the same time the thought of divorce kept going through my head. Then I thought to myself this could mean divorce and immediately thought to myself I am not intending divorce. Did divorce occur in this situation?

Q: Is it counted as talaaq if a man tells everyone that he divorced his wife even though he never mentioned the words talaaq to her. Is she divorced from him by him telling people that he divorced her.

Q: I have been married for three years. I am a doctor and doing a job since the last 9 years. My in laws are very well off but after marriage my
husband simply said that he cannot bear my expenses and even asked me to give my salary to his mother. I started giving a handsome amount to his mother every month but I had to bear all my expenses myself. My husband also wanted sexual relations as many times a day as he desired and when I refused he beat me when I was four moths pregnant with my first son. At the time of birth of our first son I bore all the expenses myself and I told my husband that I will not give my salary to his mother since I have to look after myself and my son. My husband and his mother started pressurising me to quit my job and when I refused my husband beat me very severely. At that time I was pregnant. Then my mother in law asked me repeatedly to get the pregnancy aborted which I did not and I came to my mother's house in march 2012 and since then I am bearing all the expenses of my kids and me all by myself. My husband does not pay a single penny and hardly ever calls to ask about the kids. In the light of these what does the Shairi'ah say about my not wanting to have any sexual relations with my husband? If I take khulaa what would be the status of my kids knowing that their father does not care about them at all?

Q: I need advice and guidance please. If my husband told me its over between me and him over a message, is it counted as a talaaq?

Q: I want to know that if a man divorces his wife when she has her monthly, is it counted?

Q: My question is with regards to my Nikah. My husband left me and our two children 8 months ago to live with a non muslim woman. He now regrets the decision he has made and wants to reconcile. Please advise if we are still in Nikah as I don't want to live in sin. He has not mentioned anything about giving me a Talaq at all when he was leaving, his words were he is leaving me as he does not have any feelings for
me.

Q: I want to know that signing of divorce papers in civil court really causes divorce when non of them really wants divorce? This signing of papers is necessary for husbands second marriage to show his second wifes parents?

Q: Following up an irrevocable (ba'in) divorce with another irrevocable (ba'in) divorce (al-ba'in la yalhaq al-ba'in):

For example the husband says to his wife: "I am leaving you, I am leaving you" (intending divorce with both statements) or he said: "I divorce you irrevocably, I divorce you irrevocably". In this case, only the first divorce will count and the second will be considered futile. Regardless of how many irrevocable divorces a man pronounces, only the first divorce is effected. The reason being is that the first divorce is irrevocable; hence, the marriage bond between the husband and wife has ended. As such, the second irrevocable divorce will not be able to attach itself on a relationship that has already come to an end. (Culled from Ibn Abidin's Radd al-Muhtar, 3/306-309)

Does this mean that if a husband utters an irrevocable divorce and the wife is still in her idda, then the second irrevocable divorce will still not count due to the nature of divorce? However, if a husband utters a revocable divorce after an irrevocable divorce, it will take into effect during the idda?