Talaaq

Q: I am living abroad, when I came here I wrote in the papers that I am married in Pakistan and wrote my wife's name also. But now as I am living abroad, I also got married here as well. The trouble arises when I need to apply for citizenship for this country. The trouble is this I need to tell them that my previous marriage is no longer valid. In fact I don't want to break my first marriage. Can I write to them that I am no longer in the first marriage, or if I mention my first wife's name but wrong fathers name so that even though I am doing a bad thing lying but I want to save my first marriage. This foreign country just has her name in the records, no picture no other details.

Q: If a man gives 1 or 2 talaaqs to his wife and then she gets married to someone else and has divorce or the husband dies and after her iddah she marries the first husband back. Do the Talaqs restart for that person or do the 1 or 2 given still remain ?

Q: I am in need of some advice. My husband and I are having quite a lot misunderstandings and always arguing etc. Last night he sent me a message saying it's over and I must pack up and leave. Does that count as a talaaq and does my iddat start immediatel?. He just messaged me again saying "its a divorce" so I'm confused as to whether I need to sit in iddat ?

Q: My husband and I are having quite a lot of misunderstandings and always arguing etc. Last night he sent me a message saying its over and I must pack up and leave. Does that count as a talaq and does my iddat start immediately? Now he just messaged me again saying "its a divorce" so I'm confused as to whether I need to sit in iddat?

Q: Is the first talaq considered void if rujoo is done afterwards and the gap between the second talaq is 28 year. Someone told me there is a fatwa that if the second divorce is given after 25 years of the first one, then the first divorce is void?

Q: When a man has divorced his wife and they have children so the small children are by the wife. However, he is allowed to visit them. But the problem is that the husband wants the children to spend the weekends by him i.e. that is he wants them to spend the nights as well by him on Friday and Saturday. But the wife says that they may only spend the days a the husbands home, not the nights. Is it correct for the wife to say so? 

Q: When a woman is divorced, who's responsibility she becomes and what are they responsible off?

Q: My question is my husband gave me a first talaq in 2005. We lived in ... for 8 years after that. He asked me to go back to Pakistan to live with my parents after a conflict. He gave me a second talaq via a text message while he was in ... and I was in .... At the same time he sent me an email with a 'conditional talaq notice' stating that he is giving me 2 talaqs on the condition if I come back to ... from ... and they will become valid and that first talaq of 2005, three talaaqs will happen and I will become na mahram for him. I stayed back in ...,then he sent me an email before 90 days, which was the iddat period for the second talaq he gave me earlier via text message, stating that he wants to make rajoo' with me and wants to take me back in his nikaah. After that the 2 conditional talaaqs are still there. My husband is still in ... and I am in ... Is that conditional talaq going to effect my present nikaah in any way like making it makrooh or do I need to do any thing about it so that it does not effect our nikaah?

Q: I wanted to know where I stand in my situation. Basically, I have given my wife first divorce in January. After that, we had ruju' done and lived fine and happy for 6 months. But again, major issues were brought up and she went back to her mothers home. It has been three months with no contact and in that time, I signed a divorce paper witnessed by a solicitor which clearly states I divorce her. This was not given to her, but am I right to assume, because my intentions are involved, it is classed as the 2nd divorce?

Now, someone is trying to mend the relationship, but it has been over 2 month since this 2nd divorce. I am confused because some one has said, that between the 2nd and 3rd, even if you don't give a divorce, if the period of ruju' is over, it automatically nullifies the marriage. is this true? Or are we still in nikaah?

Q: I got married (only nikkah) 9 years ago (rukhsati and proper marriage function was done after 4 years). Me and my wife had some strong arguments over some thing after nikaah and I got hyper and to scare my wife I gave her 2 talaaqs like this I give you divorce, I give you divorce over a telephonic discussion and after the 2nd time I uttered the word of divorce she disconnected the phone. And that's what I wanted.

1. Before uttering the word divorce I kept quite and prayed to Allah Almighty that " Ya Allah I am not going to give my wife divorce and you are the only witness to this thought that I don't mean it. Actually this word which I am going to speak doesn't mean anything please accept my apology". Then after thinking this I spoke to my wife the word of divorce and by speaking the word I started speaking the word in my mind that I am not giving my wife divorce. After she disconnected the phone I called her back after some time like after an hour and apologised to her in a way "I am sorry please listen carefully I haven't given you divorce because I promised Allah that I am not giving divorce and uttered divorce so there is no divorce. Thats what happened 5 years ago I guess. Now one day I heard and came to know my divorced took place.

2.Tell me weather my divorced happened or not? If it happened then what I have to do now? 

3. If my divorced happened, then I think after 2 talaaqs I could take my wife back. Was the way I mentioned to take back correct or do I have to remarry her again. One important thing I need to mention here although after nikaah we had no sexual relationship but we were together alone in room a lot of time but we opted not to have sex because we had social fear of having a baby before rukhsati. Please advise.