Husband giving the wife ghusal

Q: Is the following correct?

It is permissible for a man to wash his wife, and for a woman to wash her husband, even if the woman is observing ‘iddah following a revocable talaaq (divorce), as stated previously in the answer to question no. 154381

The fact that it is permissible for a man to wash his wife is indicated by the hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allah be pleased with her), who said: The Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) came back from a funeral in al-Baqee‘ and I had a headache and was saying, Oh my head. He said, “Rather, I should say, Oh my head. It will not matter if you die before me, for I will wash you and shroud you, then I will offer the funeral prayer for you and bury you.”

Narrated by Ahmad, 25380; Ibn Maajah, 1456; classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani inSaheeh Ibn Maajah, 1/247

It was narrated from Asma’ bint ‘Umays (may Allah be pleased with her) that Faatimah (may Allah be pleased with her) left instructions that ‘Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) should wash her.

Narrated by ash-Shaafa‘i, 1/312; ad-Daaraqutni, 2/79; al-Nayhaqi, 3/396. Its isnaad was classed as hasan by ash-Shawkaani in Nayl al-Awtaar, 4/35

Ash-Shawkaani said: The words of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), “for I will wash you”, indicate that a wife may be washed by her husband if she dies.

End quote from Nayl al-Awtaar, 4/35

As-San‘aani (may Allah have mercy on him) said concerning the hadeeth of Asma’ (may Allah be pleased with her): This indicates that this was something that was well-known during the life of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him).

End quote from Subul as-Salaam, 1/478

This is also the view of the majority of scholars (may Allah have mercy on them).

An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: With regard to washing his wife, it is permissible in our opinion and according to the majority of scholars. This was narrated by Ibn al-Mundhir from ‘Alqamah, Jaabir ibn Zayd, ‘Abd ar-Rahmaan ibn al-Aswad,… Maalik, al-Awzaa‘i, Ahmad and Ishaaq. It is also the view of ‘Ata’, Dawood and Ibn al-Mundhir. Abu Haneefah and ath-Thawri stated that he cannot wash her; this was also narrated from al-Awzaa‘i. They quoted as evidence the fact that the marriage has ended (with the death of one of the spouses), so it is akin to a complete and irrevocable divorce.

End quote from Sharh al-Muhadhdhab, 5/122

In Majmoo‘ Fataawa ash-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him), 13/109, it says:

Some of the fuqaha’ were of the view that the marital relationship comes to an end with death; what is your view on this issue?

He replied:

This is a view that is contrary to the Sunnah, so no attention should be paid to it. End quote.

With regard to a woman washing her husband, this is supported by the hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allah be pleased with her), who said: If I had known beforehand what I know now, no one would have washed the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) but his wives.

Narrated by Abu Dawood, 3141; classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani (may Allah have mercy on him) in Ahkaam al-Janaa’iz, 1/49 An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: Ibn al-Mundhir narrated in his two books, al-Ishraaf and Kitaab al-Ijmaa‘, that the ummah is unanimously
agreed that a woman may wash her husband. Others also narrated that there is
consensus on this point.

End quote from Sharh al-Muhadhdhab, 5/114.

And Allah knows best.

Husband jokingly giving the wife three talaaqs

Q: If a man says to his wife "I divorce you" three times as a joke and has no intention to divorce her and is unaware that simply uttering the words could lead to divorce. Is that counted as talaaq or is the nikkah valid. Also note that this occurred while the wife was in a state of purity, before menses, during which intercourse had taken place. Is this nikkah still valid? Is the talaaq valid? If yes is it counted as one or 3? This occurred between a couple that are very much involved and would be devastated by talaaq. And please advise what should be done after this.

Does talaaq take place through separation?

Q: I am 22 years old - British citizen. I got married in Pakistan last year, but now seeking a divorce as the husband is horrible and abusuive towards me. I returned to England on December last year. I have no contact with husband whatsoever. I do not talk to him, I am now seeking divorce but he is refusing to give me one. I wanted to know that if I haven't had sexual contact with him for 8months is my marriage invalid? What if I Return my wedding gold to him does that make the marriage over? Or what if I say divorce 3times to him? As he lives in Pakistan what can I do? I've been struggling to find help.

Fear of dying from rabies

Q: I am in huge fear of dying of rabies. Please help me. A dog had bitten me 14 years ago but at that time I have not taken vaccine. Later after 6-7 years I took the vaccine. But now I am very much worried if I get rabies in the future. So please help me with some dua for protection from rabies. The worry is effecting badly my life.