Business and Dealings

Paying for one's studies with haraam money

Q: My questions are regarding haram earnings and investing it in education. I have learnt that investing haram money in a halal business is haram, and any remuneration is impermissible. This is what I understand.

1. If someone invests haram money in education by purchasing a course(s) that are permissible to study like language, science etc. and then they go on to study a degree also bought with haram earnings, will the knowledge that they acquire be permissible for them to use?

2. What is the status of the certificates and/or degree gained? Are these things haram for one who acquired them to keep or show employers?

3. And if he goes onto use this knowledge in a profession like medicine, teaching, engineering etc. will his earnings be haram? For example, he studies GCSE's, A-Levels, then goes onto study a degree in physics and then becomes a physics teacher after qualifying; will his earnings be haram after he spent haram earnings on all his previous courses?

Can the one appointed to purchase make a profit?

Q: I need Shar'ee guidance regarding a certain trading transaction:

My relative asked me to buy a washing machine for him. The washing machine cost Rs.3000 for example.

1. Can I inform my relative that the machine cost Rs.5,000? He does not know that I will charge him extra. 

2. Can I first inform my relative that I started selling washing machines and then charge him Rs.5,000?

Working as a chartered accountant

Q: Is it permissible to do CA jobs in Islam? CA means chartered accountant who gives reports on the financial statement (profit and loss and balance sheet) by signing it and states in his report whether it gives true and fair views of state of affairs of the company which also includes financial figures related to interest earned and interest received by the company.

Is modern day interest haraam?

Q: I would like to know if riba falls under the category of western interest? A lot of scholars have said that it does not and it is permissible. I would like to know the reasoning behind this and why it is or is not permissible. I have been reading a lot about this topic and when the word riba is translated it can have a large number of meanings.

Giving money to one’s mature and immature children

Q:

1. A father gave a fixed amount of money to his wife and told her that this money is for their children (mature and immature children). He also told the children that he gave their mother a fixed amount of money which is theirs. In the above-mentioned situation, will the money belong to the children or will it still belong to the father?

2. Can the father take the money back without asking the children?

3. What is the correct procedure of giving money to the children? Should the money be given to the wife to keep on their behalf?